CCNA QUESTIONS--2

1. The _________ is your network equipment, which includes the DCE (e.g., a modem) and the DTE (e.g., a router).

A. Demarcation point

B. Carrier switch

C. Local loop

D. CPE

Answer: D

2. Which interface type is used to connect to the serial interface of a router?

A. EIA/TIA-232

B. V.35

C. DB-60

D. X.21

Answer: C

3. Which frame field is different between ISO HDLC and Cisco’s HDLC?

A. Address

B. Control

C. Flag

D. Proprietary

Answer: D

4. PPP can do all of the following except ___________.

A. Authentication

B. Compression

C. Quality of Service

D. None of these

Answer: C

5. _________ negotiates the data link and network layer protocols that will traverse a PPP connection.

A. LCP

B. NCP

C. CDP

D. PAP

Answer: B

6. 1. A network administrator wants to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet access by the
hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at 192.168.1.5. What command should be issued to
accomplish this task?

A. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.015 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
B. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23
access-list 1 permit ip any any
C. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 1 permit ip any any
D. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
E. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.158.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any
F. access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23
access-list 101 permit ip any any

Answer: A

7. A network administrator has configured access list 172 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from
reaching a server with the address if 192.168.13.26. Which command can the administrator issue to
verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three)

A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 172
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-list
E. Router# show ip interface

Answer: A, D, E

8. When are packets processed in an inbound access list?

A. Before they are routed to an outbound interface.
B. After they are routed for outbound traffic.
C. After they are routed to an outbound interface while queuing.
D. Before and after they are routed to an outbound interface.
E. Depends on the configuration of the interface
F. None of the above

Answer: A

9.Which of the following access list statements would deny traffic from a specific host?

A. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 172.31.212.74 any
B. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 10.6.111.48 host
C. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.13 0.0.0.0
D. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.14.132 255.255.255.0
E. Router(config)# access-list 1 deny 192.168.166.127 255.255.255.255

Answer: C

10. A standard IP access list is applied to an Ethernet interface of a router. What does this standard access
list filter on?

A. The source and destination addresses
B. The destination port number
C. The destination address
D. The source address
E. All of the above

Answer: D

11. On your newly installed router, you apply the access list illustrated below to interface Ethernet 0 on a
Cisco router. The interface is connected to the 192.168.1.8/29 LAN.
access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.166.18 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any
access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.166.18 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any
How will the above access lists affect traffic?

A. All traffic will be allowed to exit E0 except FTP traffic.
B. FTP traffic from 192.168.166.19 to any host will be denied.
C. FTP traffic from 192.168.166.22 to any host will be denied.
D. All traffic exiting E0 will be denied.
E. All FTP traffic to network 192.168.166.18/29 from any host will be denied.

Answer: D

12. Which of the following statements regarding the use of multiple access lists are valid when configuring a
single interface on a Cisco router?

A. Application of up to three access lists per protocol to a single interface.
B. No more than two access lists per interface.
C. One access list may be configured per direction for each Layer 3 protocol configured on an interface.
D. The maximum number allowed varies due to RAM availability in the router.
E. An infinite number of access lists that can be applied to an interface, from most specific to most general.
F. Cisco IOS allows only one access list to an interface.

Answer: C

13. On the serial interface of a router, an inbound access list is configured to deny all traffic from UDP and
TCP ports 21, 23, and 25. All other traffic is permitted. Based on this information, which types of traffic
will be allowed through this interface? (Choose threee)

A. SMTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. Telnet
E. HTTP
F. POP3

Answer: B, E, F

14. On a newly installed router, the following access list is added to the serial interface for incoming traffic:
Access-list 101 permit tcp any 10.18.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq tcp
What is the effect of the "any" keyword in the above access list?

A. check any of the bits in the source address
B. permit any wildcard mask for the address
C. accept any source address
D. check any bit in the destination address
E. permit 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
F. accept any destination

Answer: C

15. You are the network administrator at ABC inc. ABC inc has its headquarters in New York, and regional offices in Boston, Buffalo, Cleveland, Pittsburgh and Baltimore. You want to connect the regional offices to headquarters. You are evaluating WAN technologies that could accomplish this. You want each regional office to be connected to the corporate headquarters using a packet-switched technology.

Which of the following WAN technologies should you use?

A. ISDN
B. Wireless
C. Frame Relay
D. T1 leased line
E. Point to point leased line

Answer: C

16. Which of the following commands will display the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between the two routers in the network when you know that all WAN links inside the company’s network use PPP with CHAP for authentication security?

A. show ppp authentication
B. debug PAP authentication
C. debug PPP authentication
D. show interface serial0
E. show CHAP authentication

Answer: C

17. You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. A newly appointed trainee wants to know what the purpose of DLCIs in Frame Relay is. What would your response be?

A. They determine the encapsulation type employed by the Frame Relay.
B. They identify the logical circuit between a local router and a Frame Relay WAN switch.
C. They represent the physical address of the router.
D. They represent the keepalives in the maintenance of PVC.

Answer: B

18. You are a network technician at RJP. Due to rapid expansion, RJP is leaning towards scalable WAN technology. Immediate plans for the company include an additional 7 regional offices with all sites requiring continuous connectivity, but the current head office has no free ports available. Which of the following WAN technologies will meet the requirements?

A. Frame Relay
B. Broadband cable
C. ISDN-BRI
D. ADSL
E. Dedicated PPP/HDLC links
F. ISDN

Answer: A

19. You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You have been asked to set up Frame Relay for point-topoint subinterfaces. Which of the following should not be configured?

A. The local DLCI on each subinterface of the Frame Relay.
B. The Frame Relay encapsulation on the physical interface.
C. An IP address on the physical interface.
D. The subinterface only.

Answer: C

20.Select two of the following statements that are characteristics of a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface.

A. Needs to use Inverse ARP.
B. Maps a single IP per DLCI.
C. Maps a single IP subnet across multiple DLCIs.
D. Addresses and resolves NBMA split horizon issues.
E. Needs the frame-relay map command.

Answer: B, D

21.How would you configure a router in a Frame Relay network to prevent issues such as split horizons hampering routing updates?

A. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the subinterface.
B. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet.
C. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line.
D. Configure only one sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections.
E. Configure a single sub-interface connect to multiple remote router interfaces.

Answer: A

22.In Frame Relay, what are DLCIs used for?

A. They determine the Frame Relay encapsulation type
B. They identify the logical circuit between a local router and a Frame Relay WAN switch
C. They represent the keepalives used to maintain the PVC in an active state
D. They represent the physical address of the router attached to a Frame Relay network

Answer: B

23.Which of the following statements is true in regards to Frame Relay Multipoint subinterfaces?

A. An ip address is required on the physical interface
B. All routers are required to be fully meshed
C. All routers must be in the same subnet to forward routing updates and broadcasts
D. Multipoint is the default configuration for Frame Relay subinterfaces

Answer: C

24.When you execute Router# show frame-relay, which of the following command options will be displayed? (Select three options.)

A. dlci
B. clients
C. pvc
D. neighbors
E. lmi
F. map

Answer: C, E, F

25. If you connect a router to a Frame relay network and the device on the other side
of the PVC is powered down,what would you expect the state of the PVC to be?

A. Active
B. Down
C. Unavailable
D. Inactive
E. Deleted

Answer: D

26. The ___________ is the point where the carrier’s responsibility ends and yours begins.

A. Local loop

B. Demarcation point

C. CPE

D. Toll network

Answer: B

27. The default encapsulation on a synchronous serial interface is _________.

A. HDLC

B. PPP

C. Neither HDLC nor PPP

Answer: A

28. Which of the following summarized subnets represent routes that could have been
created for CIDR’s goal to reduce the size of Internet routing tables?

A. 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

B. 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0

C. 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0

D. 200.1.0.0 255.255.0.0

Answer: D

29. With static NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT
table entries to be created?

A. The first packet from the inside network to the outside network

B. The first packet from the outside network to the inside network

C. Configuration using the ip nat inside source command

D. Configuration using the ip nat outside source command

Answer: C

30. With dynamic NAT, performing translation for inside addresses only, what causes NAT
table entries to be created?

A. The first packet from the inside network to the outside network

B. The first packet from the outside network to the inside network

C. Configuration using the ip nat inside source command

D. Configuration using the ip nat outside source command

Answer: A

31.NAT has been configured to translate source addresses of packets received from the
inside part of the network, but only for some hosts. Which of the following commands
identifies the hosts?

A. ip nat inside source list 1 pool barney

B. ip nat pool barney 200.1.1.1 200.1.1.254 netmask 255.255.255.0

C. ip nat inside

D. ip nat inside 200.1.1.1 200.1.1.2

E. None of the other answers are correct.

Answer: A

32. Examine the following configuration commands:

interface Ethernet0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip nat inside
interface Serial0/0
ip address 200.1.1.249 255.255.255.252
ip nat inside source list 1 interface Serial0/0
access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
If the configuration is intended to enable source NAT overload, which of the following
commands could be useful to complete the configuration?

A. The ip nat outside command

B. The ip nat pat command

C. The overload keyword

D. The ip nat pool command

Answer: A, C

33. Which command would you place on interface on a private network?

A. ip nat inside

B. ip nat outside

C. ip outside global

D. ip inside local

Answer: A

34. Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?

A. ip nat inside

B. ip nat outside

C. ip outside global

D. ip inside local

Answer: B

35. Which of the following is considered to be the address after translation?

A. Inside local

B. Outside local

C. Inside global

D. Outside global

Answer: C

36. Which of the following are not features of ACLs?

A. Restricting telnet access to a router

B. Prioritizing WAN traffic

C. Filtering traffic from the router

D. Triggering dialup phone calls

Answer: C

37. Which command activates an IP ACL on a router’s interface?

A. access-list

B. ip access-group

C. access-class

D. access-group

Answer: B

38. Choose the following that a standard IP ACL can match on.

A. Destination address

B. IP protocol

C. IP protocol information

D. None of the above

Answer: D

39. Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the ____________ device as possible.

A. Source

B. Destination

Answer: A

40. When you execute Router# show frame-relay, which of the following command options will be displayed? (Select three options.)

A. dlci
B. clients
C. pvc
D. neighbors
E. lmi
F. map

Answer: C, E, F

1. Which of the following is true concerning bridges?

A. They switch frames in hardware.

B. They support half- and full-duplexing.

C. They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.

D. They do only store-and-forward switching.

Answer: D

Bridges support only the store-and-forward switching method.

A and B are done by switches, not bridges. C is incorrect because each port on a bridge or switch is a separate collision domain.

2. With _________ switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame.

A. Store-and-forward

B. Cut-through

C. Fragment-free

D. Runtless

Answer: B

With cut-through switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address of the frame and immediately starts forwarding the frame. With A, the entire frame is read and the CRC is checked before further processing. C and

D are the same thing—once the first 64 bytes of the frame are read, the switch begins to forward it.

3. Which of the following is true concerning full-duplexing?

A. It can either send or receive frames, but not both simultaneously.

B. It can be used with hubs.

C. It can be used with 10Base5 cabling.

D. It uses point-to-point connections.

Answer: D

Full duplex connections require point-to-point connections and cannot involve hubs.

A, B, and C are true of half-duplex connections. Functions of Bridging and Switching

4. Which is not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device?

A. Learning

B. Forwarding

C. Listening

D. Removing loops

Answer: C

Listening is a port state, not one of the three main functions of a layer-2 device.

A, B, and D are the three main functions of a layer-2 device.

5. During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a(n) _________ table.

A. IP address

B. learning

C. CAM

D. memory

Answer: C

During the learning function, the switch places addresses and ports in a CAM table—another term is port address table.

A, B and D are not terms used to describe this table.

6. Which type of traffic is sent to a group of devices?

A. Multicast

B. Unicast

C. Broadcast

D. Groupcast

Answer: A

Multicast traffic is sent to a group of devices.

B is sent to a single device, and C is sent to all devices. D is a nonexistent traffic type.

7. Which type of traffic is not flooded?

A. Multicast

B. Known unicast

C. Broadcast

D. Unknown unicast

Answer: B

Unicast traffic is not flooded if the destination MAC address is in the CAM table.

A, C, and D traffic is always flooded, to maintain the transparency of the layer-2 device.

8. BPDU stands for ____________.

A. Bridge Protocol Description Unicast

B. Bridge Protocol Data Unit

C. Bridge Protocol Description Unit

D. Bridge Protocol Data Unicast

Answer: B

BPDU stands for Bridge Protocol Data Unit.

A and C are incorrect because of the word description, and the fact that BPDUs use multicasts, which also makes D incorrect.

9. BPDUs are generated every __________ seconds.

A. CLICK HERE

Answer: A

2

BPDUs are generated every two seconds.

10. The root switch is the one elected with the __________ __________.

A. Lowest MAC address

B. Highest MAC address

C. Lowest switch ID

D. Highest switch ID

Answer: C

The switch with the lowest switch ID is elected as the root switch.

A and D are incorrect because the decision is based on the switch ID, which includes the switch’s priority and MAC address. D is incorrect because it is the lowest, not the highest.

11. The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a __________.

A. Root port

B. Alternate port

C. Backup port

D. Designated port

Answer: D

The switch port that is chosen to forward traffic for a segment is called a designated port.

A is the port that the switch uses to reach the root. B is used in RSTP and is a secondary root port, and C is used in RSTP and is a secondary designated port.

12. Which is true concerning a port in a listening state? (Choose all correct answers.)

A. It remains there for 15 seconds.

B. It forwards BPDUs and builds the CAM table.

C. It remains there for 20 seconds.

D. It forwards BPDUs.

Answer: A

A and D. In a listening state, the port processes and forwards BPDUs. A port stays in the listening state for 15 seconds.

B occurs in the learning state. C is the time period for the blocking state.

13. Enter the 1900 switch command to set an interface to autosense the duplexing: _________.

A. CLICK HERE

Answer: A

DUPLEX AUTO

Use the duplex auto command on the interface to set duplexing to autosensing.

14. Enter the switch command to view the CAM table: ___________.

A. CLICK HERE

Answer: A

SHOW MAC-ADDRESS-TABLE

Use the show mac-address-table command to view the CAM table on either switch.

15. Which 1900 command enables port security?

A. port security

B. switchport security

C. port secure

D. switchport port-security

Answer: C

The port secure command enables port security on a 1900 switch.

D is used on the 2950 switch. A and B are nonexistent commands.



1. Which of the following are not features of ACLs?

A. Restricting telnet access to a router

B. Prioritizing WAN traffic

C. Filtering traffic from the router

D. Triggering dialup phone calls

Answer: C

ACLs cannot filter traffic the router originates, such as pings or traceroutes.

A, B, and C are ACL features.

2. Which of the following is true concerning ACLs?

A. Order of the statements is automatic.

B. All statements are processed.

C. If no match is found, the packet is permitted.

D. You can delete a specific statement in a named list.

Answer: D

You can delete a specific ACL statement in a named ACL, but not a numbered ACL.

A is not true because all statements are always added at the bottom of the ACL. B is not true because as soon as there is a statement match, no more statements are processed. C is not true because the implicit deny at the end of every ACL drops a non-matching packet.

3. The last statement in an ACL is called the __________ ____________ statement.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

IMPLICIT DENY

The last statement in an ACL is called an implicit deny statement: this statement, which cannot be seen with any show commands, causes the router to drop any packet that doesn’t match any preceding ACL statements.

4. There are ___________ actions a router can take when there is a match on an ACL statement (enter a number).

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

2

There are 2 actons a router can take when there is a match on an ACL statement: permit or deny.

5. Which command activates an IP ACL on a router’s interface?

A. access-list

B. ip access-group

C. access-class

D. access-group

Answer: B

The ip access-group command activates an ACL on a router’s interface.

A is incorrect because it creates an ACL statement in a list. C is incorrect because it activates a standard ACL on a line, not an interface. D is a nonexistent command.

6. A ___________ in a bit position of a wildcard mask means that the same bit position in the condition address must match the same bit position in the wildcard mask in order to execute the ACL’s action.

A. 0

B. 1

Answer: A

A 0 in a bit position of a wildcard mask means that the same bit position in the condition address must match that bit position in the wildcard mask in order to execute the ACL’s action.

B means that the bit position doesn’t have to match.

7. Enter the wildcard mask value to match on every bit position in an address: __________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

0.0.0.0

The value 0.0.0.0 is a wildcard mask that says to match on every bit position in an address.

8. Enter the wildcard mask value for the subnet mask of 255.255.248.0: ____________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

0.0.7.255

The inverted subnet mask for 255.255.248.0 is 0.0.7.255. The trick is to subtract the subnet mask octets from 255.

9. Choose the following that a standard IP ACL can match on.

A. Destination address

B. IP protocol

C. IP protocol information

D. None of the above

Answer: D

Standard IP ACLs can match only on source IP addresses.

A, B, and C are things extended IP ACLs can match on.

10. Enter the router command to view console output on a non-console line connection: __________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

TERMINAL MONITOR

Use the terminal monitor command to view console output on a nonconsole line connection, such as a VTY or an auxiliary line.

11. Enter the standard IP ACL command to permit traffic from 192.168.1.0/24, using a list number of 10: ___________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

ACCESS-LIST 10 PERMIT 192.168.1.0. 0.0.0.255

Enter the standard IP ACL command to permit traffic from 192.168.1.0/24, using a list number of 10: access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255.

12. Enter the extended IP ACL command to permit all ICMP traffic from 172.16.0.0/16 to 172.17.0.0/17, using a list number of 101: ___________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

ACCESS-LIST 101 PERMIT ICMP 172.16.0.0 0.0.255 172.17.0.0 0.0.255.255

Enter the extended IP ACL command to permit all ICMP traffic from 172.16.0.0/16 to 172.17.0.0/17, using a list number of 101: access-list 101 permit icmp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.17.0.0 0.0.127.255. Notice the subnet mask value for 172.17.0.0, which is 17 bits!

13. Which router command creates a standard named ACL called test?

A. ip access-list test

B. access-list test

C. ip access-list standard test

D. access-list standard test

Answer: C

The ip access-list standard test command creates a standard ACL called test.

A, B, and D are invalid commands.

14. Enter the router command to activate an ACL with a name of test inbound on an interface: ____________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

IP ACCESS-GROUP TEST IN

Enter the router command to activate an access list with a name of test inbound on an interface: ip access-group test in.

15. Enter the router command to delete all of the statements in access-list 100: __________.

A. CLICK TO VIEW THE ANSWER

Answer: A

NO ACCESS-LIST 100

Enter the router command to delete access-list 100: no access-list 100.

16. Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the ____________ device as possible.

A. Source

B. Destination

Answer: A

Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the source device as possible.

B is true for standard ACLs.



1. When designing OSPF networks;what is the purpose of using a hierarchical design?(select all choices
that apply)

A. To reduce the complexity of router configuration

B. To speed up convergence

C. To confine network instability to single areas of the network

D. To reduce routing overhead

E. To lower costs by replacing routers

F. To decrease latency

Answer: B, C, D

2. You are a network administrator and you need to implement a routing protocol on your network that
provides:
* Scalability
* VLSM support
* Minimal overhead
* Support for connecting networks using routers of multiple vendors
Which of the following routing protocol would best serve your needs?

A. VTP

B. RIP version 1

C. EIGRP

D. OSPF

E. IGRP

F. CDP

Answer: D

3. You need to configure a single router into load balancing traffic across 4 unequal cost paths. Which
routing protocols can satisfy this requirement? (Select two)

A. RIP v1

B. RIP v2

C. IGRP

D. EIGRP

E. OSPF
F. IS-IS


Answer: C, D

4. Which of the following routing protocols support the use of VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking)?
(Select three)

A. RIPv1

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. IGRP

E. RIPv2

Answer: B, C, E

5. You need to implement the use of a routing protocol that meets the following requirements:
Converges quickly
Supports VLSM, CIDR, IP, and IPX.
Uses minimal bandwidth for routing updates.
Which one of the following routing protocols would be the best choice?

A. RIPv1

B. RIPv2

C. IGRP

D. OSPF

E. EIGRP

Answer: E

6. The RJP Network consists of the following 5 IP networks:
NETWORK 1: 192.168.10.0/26
NETWORK 2: 192.168.10.64/27
NETWORK 3: 192.168.10.96/27
NETWORK 4: 192.168.10.128/30
NETWORK 5: 192.168.10.132/30
Which of the following routing protocols will support this IP addressing scheme? (Choose all that apply).

A. RIP version 1

B. RIP version 2

C. IGRP

D. EIGRP

E. OSPF

F. BGP

Answer: B, D, E

7. Which one of the following commands would you enter to terminate a VTY line session?

A. close

B. disable

C. disconnect

D. suspend

E. exit

F. None of the above

Answer: E

8. Which command will configure a default route on a router?

A. router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.0 10.1.1.1

B. router(config)# ip default-route 10.1.1.0

C. router(config)# ip default-gateway 10.1.1.0

D. router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

Answer: D

9. In which situation would the use of a static route be appropriate?

A. To configure a route to the first Layer 3 device on the network segment.

B. To configure a route from an ISP router into a corporate network.

C. To configure a route when the administrative distance of the current routing protocol is too low.

D. To reach a network is more than 15 hops away.

E. To provide access to the Internet for enterprise hosts.

Answer: B

10. Which of the following answer choices is an additional parameter which must be supplied before the
IGRP routing process can initialize?

A. Connected subnet numbers

B. Register administrative subnet masks

C. IP address mask

D. Autonomous system number

E. Metric weights

Answer: D

11. What parameters must you specify when you enable EIGRP routing?

A. The broadcast address, and AS number

B. The network number and AS number

C. EIGRP routing, network number and passive interface

D. EIGRP routing, network number, and AS

Answer: D

12. Which of the following technologies can be used in distance vector routing protocols to prevent routing
loops? (Select all valid answer choices)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol

B. Shortest path first tree

C. Link-state advertisements (LSA)

D. Hold-down timers

E. Split horizon

F. VRRP

Answer: D, E

13. Which of the following OSPF commands, when used together, will put the network 192.168.10.0/24 into
OSPF area 0? (Select all valid responses)

A. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 0

B. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. Router(config)# router ospf 0

E. Router(config)# router ospf 1

Answer: B, E

14. Which of the following routing protocols are less likely prone routing loops and network reachability
problems when used in discontiguous networks? (Select all valid responses)

A. IGRP

B. CDP

C. OSPF

D. RIP v1

E. RIP v2

F. EIGRP

Answer: C, E, F

15. What is the maximum number of hops OSPF allows before it deems a network unreachable?

A. 15

B. 16

C. 99

D. 255

E. Unlimited

Answer: E

16. A routing table contains static, RIP, and IGRP routes destined to the same network with each route set to
its default administrative distance. Which route will be the preferred route?

A. The RIP route

B. The static route

C. The IGRP route

D. All three will load balance.

Answer: B

17. You are trying to connect directly into an existing Cisco router. You want to telnet to the local Cisco
router using TCP/IP but cannot create a session.
What should you do to resolve the problem?

A. Use a straight-through cable to connect your computer's COM port to the router's console port.

B. Use a crossover cable to connect your computer's COM port to the router's console port.

C. Use a straight-through cable to connect your computer's COM port to the router's Ethernet port.

D. Use a crossover cable to connect your computer's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port.

E. Use a rollover cable to connect your computer's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port.

F. Use a straight-through cable to connect your computer's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port.

Answer: D

18. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, you issue RIP debugging as displayed below:
RtrA#debug ip rip
Rip protocol debugging is on
RtrA#
1d05h: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet0/0 (172.16.1.1)
1d05h: RIP: build update entries
1d05h: network 10.0.0.0 metric 1
1d05h: network 192.168.1.0 metric 2
1d05h: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial0/0 (10.0.8.1)
1d05h: RIP: build update entries
1d05h: network 172.16.0.0 metric 1
RtrA#
1d05h: RIP: received v1 update from 10.0.15.2 on Serial0/0
1d05h: 192.168.1.0 in 1 hops
1d05h: 192.168.0 in 16 hops (inaccessible)
Based on the output of the above exhibit, which two of the following statements are true? (Select two
answer choices)

A. A ping to 10.0.15.2 will be successful.

B. RtrA has three interfaces that will take part in the RIP process.

C. There are at least two routers participating in the RIP process.

D. A ping to 192.168.168.2 will be successful.

Answer: A, C

19. When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what's the most common
request/reply pair you'll see? (Select one answer choice)

A. Echo request and Echo reply

B. ICMP hold and ICMP send

C. ICMP request and ICMP reply

D. Echo off and Echo on

E. None of the above

Answer: A

20. Which IOS commands can a network technician use to verify all RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, and OSPF routing
protocol configurations? Select two.

A. debug ip routing

B. show running-config

C. show ip route protocols

D. show ip protocols

E. show protocols all

Answer: B, D


1. Which of the following steps are necessary inorder to add a new VLAN to a switched network? (Select
all that apply.)

A. Create the VLAN.

B. Name the VLAN.

C. Configure an IP address for the VLAN.

D. Add the desired ports to the new VLAN.

E. Add the VLAN to the VTP domain.

Answer: A B D

2. Which of the following a true statements regarding the use of VLANs to segment a network? (Select
three.)

A. They increase the size of collision domains

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

C. They can enhance network security.

D. They increase the size of the broadcast domain while decreasing the number of collision domains.

E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

F. They simplify switch administration.

Answer: B, C, E

3. What is a characteristic of ISL and 802.1q frame tagging in a switched LAN environment?

A. They are used to find the best path through a network.

B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables.

C. They specify different implementations of the Spanning-Tree Protocol.

D. They allow the exchange of routing tables

E. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication.

Answer: E

4. Which one of the following protocols allows the information about the configuration of a new VLAN to
be distributed across entire switched network?

A. STP

B. VTP

C. EIGRP

D. SNMP

E. CDP

F. None of the above

Answer: B

5. Which encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch for a trunk? (Select two answer choices)

A. VTP

B. ISL

C. CDP

D. 802.1Q

E. 802.1p

F. LLC

G. IETF

Answer: B, D

6. How could a large corporation with many specialized divisions benefit from using VLANs on their
networks? (Select three answer choices.)

A. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

C. VLANs provide a low-latency, high bandwidth internetworking alternative.

D. VLANs provide a method of communication between IP addresses in large networks.

E. VLANs establish segmented broadcast domains in switched networks.

F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Answer: A, E, F

7. An administrator is configuring a Catalyst switch with VLAN information that must be automatically
distributed to other Catalyst switches in the network. What conditions must be met inorder for the
VLANs configured on this switch to be automatically configured on the other switches? (Choose three)

A. The switch that will share its VLAN configuration must be in VTP server mode.

B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain.

C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge.

D. The switches must be connected over VLAN trunks.

E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version.

F. The switches must have VTP pruning activated.

Answer: A, B, D

8. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

A. To prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port.

B. To limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port.

C. To prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN.

D. To protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports.

E. To block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports.

Answer: C

9. Which interface commands would you enter on a Catalyst 2900 switch, if your goal was to bring all
VLAN traffic to another directly connected switch? (Select the two valid responses)

A. Switch(config-if)# vlan all

B. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

C. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all

D. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

E. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 303

Answer: C, D

10. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN?

A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments.

B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches.

C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.

D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.

E. To prevent routing loops in networks.

Answer: C

11. Which two of the following values does STP take into consideration when it elects the root bridge? (Select
two answer choices)

A. The BPDU version number

B. The access layer bridge setting

C. The Bridge ID

D. The spanning-tree update number

E. The bridge priority

F. The VLAN number

Answer: C, E

12. The spanning tree information from 4 switches on the Testking network is displayed below. Despite their
names, all four switches are on the same LAN.

Tampa#show spanning-tree
Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol
Bridge Identifier has priority 32768, address 0002.fd29.c505
Configured hello time 2, max age 20. forward delay 15
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Miami#show spanning-tree
Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol
Bridge Identifier has priority 16384, address 0002.fd29.c504
Configured hello time 2, max age 20, forward delay 15
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
London#show spanning-tree
Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol
Bridge Identifier has priority 8192, address 0002.fd29.c503
Configured hello time 2, maxage 20, forward delay 15
-------------------------------------------------------------------------
Cairo#show spanning-tree
Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol
Bridge Identifier has priority 4096, address 0002.fd29.c502
Configured hello time 2, maxage 20, forward delay 15

Based on the outputs of the above exhibit, which one of the switches is the spanning tree root bridge?

A. Miami

B. London

C. Tampa

D. Cairo

Answer: D

13. BPDU stands for.......

A.Bridge Protocol Description UniCast

B.Bride Protocol Data Unit

C.Bridge Protocol Description Unit

D.Bridge Protocol Data Unicast

Answer: B

14.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. You are using a switch to break up a broadcast domain. Which features of the switch enables this?

A. Transparent bridging

B. Cut-through bridges

C. Fragment-free switches

D. Microsegmentation

E. Virtual LANs

F. Store-and-forward switching

Answer: E

15.Which field of frame id used by error detection schemes when checking on errors?

A. MTU

B. PDU

C. FCS

D. Flag

E. MAC

F. BRI

Answer: C

16.What advantages does full-duplex Ethernet have over single-duplex? (Select two options.)

A. Uses inexpensive hubs

B. Operates without collisions

C. Operates on switches

D. Provides faster data transfer

E. Utilizes fewer wiring pairs

Answer: B, D

17.Your newly appointed RJP trainee wants to know what requirements must be met before you can configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches. What will your reply be?

A. You must set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1e encapsulation.

B. You must set the same VTP management domain name on both switches.

C. You must set all ports on the two switches as access ports.

D. You must configure one of the switches as a VTP server.

E. You must use a rollover cable to connect the two switches.

F. You must use a router to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.

Answer: B, D

18.You are a technician at RJP. You have just connected a new host to a workgroup switch on the RJP network. The new host's Layer 3 configuration is correct. However, the host is unable to access the server resources in its network segment.

Which of the following is most likely causing the problem?

A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host

B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN

C. The host MAC address is incorrectly configured

D. A VIP instance for the new host has not been initialized

Answer: B

19.You are a network technician at RJP. A newly appointed trainee wants to know what the differences and similarities between bridges and switches are. What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.

B. A switch is a multiport bridge,

C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.

D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.

E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.

Answer: B,C

20.You are a network technician at RJP, Inc. Your RJP trainee is studying the spanning tree algorithm and wants to know what the default mechanism for determining the spanning-tree path cost is. What would your reply be?

A. Statically determined by the administrator.

B. Sum of the costs based on bandwidth.

C. Total hop count.

D. Sum of the cost based on latency.

Answer: B